I am 57 years old, and recently married. Both my wife and I own homes. In the next few months, she is going to sell her home. I currently have a 30-year mortgage at 5.75 percent. My credit rating is average due to some late bills, and a lot of credit card debt. My wife's credit rating is outstanding, and she has very little debt. I would like to re-finance under her name, and get a fixed, 10-year mortgage. Could I sell her my house for $1.00, and let her re-finance it under her excellent rating? We both earn around $70,000, and the mortgage is $165,000. by bradtintermen_454... from San Diego, California. Aug 18th 2011
Since there is a mortgage, you would not be able to sell it for 1 dollar, as the mortgage would be your consideration, not the $1. Why is it you want only her name on the loan? She can be party to the refinance, if that helps. Please clarify so maybe I can help you.
You can sort of do what you want. There are two ways. One faster, one longer. The faster way is that she would have to "buy it" from you. This means a down payment, purchase agreement, etc. The trick is that as a relative, you can do a "gift of equity", and if the numbers work out, meaning there is enough equity in the home, you can "gift" the down payment and closing costs. The second way is for you to add her to title with a Quit Claim Deed. As an owner, she can refinance the house, dropping you. The problem with this second option, is lenders typically require a 12 month chain of title, and restrict who can refinance for up to one year after a title change. You could do the Quit Claim today, but not be able to refinance until a year from now.
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